Nasty little problem,,,

This is a problem that's been stumping me for a few hours now.
Let R be a commutative ring with unity. Let x and y be in R, such that x is a unit and y is nilpotent.
Claim: (x+y) is a unit.
Side Bar: Ok, here's what that means: x is unit implies that there exists b in R such that xb=1, or, that x has a multiplicative inverse. y is nilpotent implies that there is a positive integer n such that y^n=0. I want to show that there exists c in R such that (x+y)c=1, or that (x+y) has a multiplicative inverse. Observe that, if we set c to y^(n-1), then we get x*y^(n-1). If I can show that that has a multiplicative inverse, then I'll be done. But I'm not sure that that is the way to go. How about this instead: (x+y)(a+b)=1. Hmmm, that has potential. Then, xa+xb+ya+yb=1. Now, let a=x and let b=-y. Then, xa+xb+ya+yb=x^2-y^2. Wait, multiply this by x^2+y^2. Then, we have x^4-y^4. Do this enough times, and eventually, you'll get to y^n or y to some number that is greater than n, which amounts to the same thing, namely, y goes to 0. Then, we are left with x^m. Does x^m have a multiplicative inverse? Well, of course, it does. x^m=x*x^(m-1), and x is a unit. So, multiply x^m by x^-m and you get 1. Pretty facile, I know, but it's worth explaining these things. So, now for the actual proof.
Pf: Observe that multiplying x+y by (x^-m)(x-y)*II(x^i+y^i), i=2, m, where m is sufficiently large (n is fine), you have (x^-m)(x^m-y^m). But, y^m=0, so, you have x^-m*x^m, which is 1. So, x+y is a unit; specifically, its multiplicative inverse is (x^-m)(x-y)*II(x^i+y^i), i=2, m, where m is a number such that the product of the nonzero even numbers preceding m is greater than or equal to n. QED.

I hope... I bet there is an easier way to SHOW that there must be an inverse, other than actually FINDING the inverse... I'll keep thinking on this.